The Lautenberg Amendment...

[FLyellowdog]

does this or the original laws against domestic violence state that even someone ACCUSED of spousal abuse be denied the right to have a firearm? I've tried to read the synopses of the law and to me it seems to say that one must either be under an order of protection, i.e. a restraining order, or have been convicted of a misdemeanor referencing the abuse before being effectively stripped of that right.

A former customs officer friend told me that just the accusation of abuse would result in loss of right to have access to firearms.

Thank you for any info. Google only confused me more.

[cheapdate]

1. No.

"The act bans shipment, transport, ownership and use of guns or ammunition by individuals convicted of misdemeanor domestic violence, or who are under a restraining (protection) order for domestic abuse"

The ban requires a conviction (as defined under federal statute) or a court approved restraining order. You could say that a restraining order is essentially an accusation, but not really.

[FLyellowdog]

2. I didn't think so.

But he seemed so certain. Of course, he's also a true conservative who thinks Pres. Obama is coming after his guns.

Thanks for the response.