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It is accepted that the federal government is a government of enumerated powers, that is, for it to have authority to pass any particular law, there must be a specific grant of power in the US constitution for it. So you have Art I section 8, 14th amendment, 15th, and some others. But every federal law has to be tied to a grant of power.
Unlike States, which are governments of general "police powers", that is, they can pass laws on any subject that the legislature wants, for the general health, welfare, and safety of their respective citizens. Federal law is supreme in the confines of the enumerated powers and the constitution, but each state is otherwise sovereign.
If you are looking at Art I, section 1, and suggesting that all congress must do in passing a law is find that it is consistent with the general welfare of the country (welfare as defined as "the good of"), you would be wrong.
However, some of the provisions are broad enough to drive most of our gov programs through. Regulating interstate commerce, combined with Art I secion 19 (allowing all laws necessary to enact the other powers) was enough to pass civil rights laws. Howzat, you ask? The lack of hotel facilities that took blacks was a burden on interstate commerce.
So your libertarian friend--who probably also pretends to be a strict constitutional constructionist--finds that welfare, education grants, securities laws, highways, etc, are all pursuant to a power over interstate commerce. The founders would be surprised, not because the interpretation of the constitution has changed, but the fact that almost no commerce in our modern society is actually intRAstate. In 1791, with largely subsistence farming, small cities, and ten miles to Boston being a days ride by horse, it wasn't that big a power. Now it is.
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