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tk2kewl Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Fri Oct-14-05 10:39 PM
Original message
Poll question: if you shoot someone crippling them and do time for it
and then that person dies 30 years later of complications related to the injury should you be charged with murder?


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Lex Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Fri Oct-14-05 10:40 PM
Response to Original message
1. He can't be.
Not if he was charged and convicted of the crippling.



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tk2kewl Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Fri Oct-14-05 10:41 PM
Response to Reply #1
2. it's not double jeopardy if its a different charge
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Lex Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Fri Oct-14-05 10:42 PM
Response to Reply #2
3. It's the same incident however.
Edited on Fri Oct-14-05 10:42 PM by Lex
If you charge and convict him for the crippling now, you can't get him for the death later for the same incident.


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tk2kewl Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Fri Oct-14-05 10:43 PM
Response to Reply #3
4. it was just reported on the local news that
this exact scenario has taken place in NJ
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Lex Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Fri Oct-14-05 10:44 PM
Response to Reply #4
5. Then I hope the guy has a competent attorney.
You can switch the charge to murder *if* the victim dies before you convict the shooter of the crippling.

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progressivebydesign Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat Oct-15-05 01:02 AM
Response to Reply #3
10. Yes, you can get charged again.
It happens all the time. It's not double jeopardy if it's a different crime, even if it's the same incident. i.e. you rob a bank and are convicted of that. Later, they find the body of a customer you killed and stuffed into a vault. You will be charged with murder, as well.
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philosophie_en_rose Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat Oct-15-05 07:01 AM
Response to Reply #3
12. Yes you can.
One action can be more than one crime. For instance, if a drunk driver kills a pedestrian, he or she can be held criminally liable for vehicular homicide AND driving drunk. He or she could also be civilly liable to the pedestrian's family.

There are many factors in determining whether someone is guilty of murder. The issue here appears to be causation. Was the guy the actual cause of the death? Were there any intervening factors?

If it just took the person a long time to die, then I think he's guilty.
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HomieG Donating Member (3 posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Fri Oct-14-05 11:42 PM
Response to Original message
6. Not likely...
Most states have something that resembles the "year and a day" rule. This simply says that if the victim dies (as a result of the defendant's act) more than a year and a day following this act, then the defendant is not liable for the victim's death.
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michreject Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat Oct-15-05 06:57 AM
Response to Reply #6
11. No law like that in Michigan
No law like that in Michigan. No expiration for the ability to charge someone with felony murder. It's happened twice within the past year.
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newyawker99 Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat Oct-15-05 10:05 AM
Response to Reply #11
14. Hi michreject!!
Welcome to DU!! :toast:
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Nikia Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat Oct-15-05 10:48 AM
Response to Reply #6
15. I have heard of that applied to a case
I can't remember the case, but it seemed to make sense.
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lectrobyte Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Fri Oct-14-05 11:58 PM
Response to Original message
7. Seems like a unique question... Is there a case like this that has
come up recently and I missed it?
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tk2kewl Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat Oct-15-05 08:53 AM
Response to Reply #7
13. a case like this was reported on the local news last night in NJ
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Walt Starr Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat Oct-15-05 12:00 AM
Response to Original message
8. It depends upon the specific laws of the state where the event takes place
:shrug:

Laws are different in different states, so it all just depends.
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progressivebydesign Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat Oct-15-05 01:01 AM
Response to Original message
9. If it's provable. Yes. They wouldn't have died at that time if not.
I mean.. if you shoot someone and they die from it, regardless of when it was, yes.. you are culpable. People rarely shoot other people without the intent to kill them.
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Nikia Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat Oct-15-05 10:50 AM
Response to Reply #9
16. What if it weren't shooting?
But hitting someone with an object during a fight. Would that make any difference?
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Richard Steele Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat Oct-15-05 11:35 AM
Response to Reply #16
18. That would make a difference in the charge (to me, anyway)
Hitting someone with an object has some "wiggle room".
Extenuating circumstances would have to be considered.

Did the perp own the "object" and bring it with them,
or just pick it up during the fight?
WHERE did they hit the "victim", and how many times?

But shooting someone above the waistline?
That's attempted murder, for sure.
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McCamy Taylor Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Sat Oct-15-05 11:26 AM
Response to Original message
17. Must be state by state, in Texas they will hold off charges to see if the
injured person is going to die.
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