Last night on broadcast network news, it was reported that the US
Supreme Court ruled against the validity of protection from
prosecution those people growing, using, etc. marijuana for medical
purposes. The news anchor said they sited the matter as falling under
interstate commerce, and therefore Congress has a right to regulate
it on a federal level (thus overriding state medical marijuana laws),
and marijuana (federally speaking) is a Class I drug (meaning with no
medicinal value).
Given that it's ILLEGAL to traffic marijuana interstate for any
reason, I wondered at this ruling. This morning's newspaper article
clarified things for me:
In the majority opinion, Justice John Paul Stevens wrote: "One need
not have a degree in economics to understand why a nationwide
exemption for the quantity of marijuana (or other drugs) locally
cultivated for personal use (which presumably would include use by
friends, neighbors, and family members) may have a substantial impact
on the interstate market for this extraordinarily popular substance."
---of course, again, interstate commerce of marijuana is ILLEGAL, so
presumably the US would want to work and is working towards
eradication of that commerce. Additionally, I believe the states that
have medical marijuana laws are rather strict with regard to "no
sharing with others for their recreational use." All the states are
well aware of the no-exceptions illegal status of the substance in
the eyes of the Feds, and are careful to keep within strict bounds
when the referendums are written for presentation to the electorate.
The one sentence quoted above (I certainly have not read the ruling,
just the newspaper article) completely ignores the fact of illegality
of interstate commerce of this substance. How weird is THAT???
Furthermore, the paper reports that "The court's majority marijuana
ruling relied heavily on a 1942 Supreme Court case that held that the
broader wheat market could be affected by wheat GROWN FOR HOME
CONSUMPTION."
THAT does not bode well. Think about the implications for the future.
I don't intend this to be a "sky is falling" post; simply want to
inform. But think about what you yourself might be growing right now
in your own backyard for your own consumption. Do your neighbors also
grow these things? If you all grow these things, could that effect
the broader market for these things? Can you imagine in your worst
nightmare not being able to (legally) grow vegetables and/or flowers
in your yard? Not being able to (legally) save seeds to grow your own
annuals next year? WOW. Could this line of thinking one day impact
organic growers? Will we all be eating GMO/antibiotic
laden/non-organic etc. food in the future, grown from seed that
produces fruit that has sterile seed ala Monsanto's products?
What a contortion of a ruling!! Not the aspect one would expect the
Supreme Court to focus on in coming to a decision. And what was the
break down of the 6-3 ruling? This is very interesting. The six:
Stevens, Kennedy, Souter, Bader-Ginsburg, Breyer...and Scalia.
(When's the last time this bunch agreed on anything?)
The three: Rehnquist, Thomas, O'Connor.
And if you think I'm jumping to a crazy conclusion regarding the
implications of this ruling, here's a quote from the dissenting
opinion, written by O'Connor:
"The Court's definition of economic activity is breathtaking. It
defines as economic ANY ACTIVITY INVOLVING THE PRODUCTION,
distribution, AND CONSUMPTION OF COMMODITIES."
Commodities. The things we grow in our yards.
http://www.astroworld.us/archives/000502.html#000502