Why did they need a 2/3 vote in House for fetal-pain bill?

Eric J in MN

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Thu Dec-07-06 08:40 PM
Original message

Why did they need a 2/3 vote in House for fetal-pain bill?

http://www.iht.com/articles/ap/2006/12/07/america/NA_GEN_US_Congress_Roundup.php

The House rejected a proposal that would have required abortion providers to inform women at least 20 weeks pregnant that abortions cause pain to the fetus. The vote was 250-162, short of the two-thirds majority needed under a procedure that limited debate.

The bill defined a 20-week-old fetus as a "pain-capable unborn child." That's a controversial threshold among scientists, who don't agree on whether a fetus at that stage of development feels pain or reflectively draws back from stimuli. Abortion has been legal in the United States since a 1973 Supreme Court ruling.

What kind of limited debate process means 2/3?

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JohnLocke

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Thu Dec-07-06 08:50 PM
Response to Original message

1. Suspension of the Rules.

Edited on Thu Dec-07-06 08:57 PM by JohnLocke

http://www.c-span.org/guide/congress/glossary/susrules.htm
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Suspension_of_the_rules

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Eric J in MN

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Thu Dec-07-06 08:57 PM
Response to Reply #1

2. Thanks, I wasn't familiar with that. NT

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