I'm really confused.
On common cause's web page they refer to the COPE bill as HR 5252 here:
http://www.commoncause.org/atf/cf/%7BFB3C17E2-CDD1-4DF6-92BE-BD4429893665%7D/HR5252_COPE.PDFI don't understand legalese I guess, but the text reads to me as saying almost the opposite of what the web page says the bill says.
TITLE IV—MUNICIPAL
PROVISION OF SERVICES
SEC. 401. GOVERNMENT AUTHORITY TO PROVIDE SERV8
ICES.
(a) IN GENERAL.—Neither the Communications Act
of 1934 nor any State statute, regulation, or other State
legal requirement may prohibit or have the effect of prohibiting any public provider of telecommunications service,
information service, or cable service (as such terms are
defined in sections 3 and 602 of such Act) from providing
such services to any person or entity.
(b) COMPETITION NEUTRALITY.—Any State or polit
ical subdivision thereof, or any agency, authority, or in
strumentality of a State or political subdivision thereof,
that is, owns, controls, or is otherwise affiliated with a
public provider of telecommunications service, information
service, or cable service shall not grant any preference or
advantage to any such provider. Such entity shall apply
its ordinances, rules, and policies, including those relating
to the use of public rights-of-way, permitting, performance
bonding, and reporting without discrimination in favor of any such provider as compared to other providers of such services.
Unless I'm reading the wrong part, doesn't that say that no provider should be given preference over another?