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Is a severely close election now also evidence of rigging as well as 99.9%

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jsamuel Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Tue Jul-11-06 10:50 PM
Original message
Is a severely close election now also evidence of rigging as well as 99.9%
Edited on Tue Jul-11-06 10:51 PM by jsamuel
We all have heard of the 99.9% elections where they all vote for Saddam.

However, if we look at the Mexican election, as described in this thread:
http://www.democraticunderground.com/discuss/duboard.php?az=show_mesg&forum=364&topic_id=1613478&mesg_id=1613478


We see that the "righty" seemed to try to cheat "just enough" to win the election. Do 1% difference elections now suggest what 99.9% elections do? If someone is going to cheat to win, wouldn't they "cheat just enough to win" to try to keep evidence to a minimum?

Does this means something for 2000, 2002, 2004, 2006, and 2008?
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lonestarnot Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Tue Jul-11-06 10:51 PM
Response to Original message
1. Yes.
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bobbieinok Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Tue Jul-11-06 11:30 PM
Response to Original message
2. yes ..... IMO FL2000 was a BIG mistake; they didn't 'win' by enough votes
The result: everything was looked at and many people began to wonder what was going on in their state. I think some die-hard W supporters are still a bit uneasy about how they 'won.'

So bushco made the 'win' in OH and the rest of the country 'big enough' to make the 'win' believable and so that people would say 'Oh, 100,000+, that's just too big to contest/steal.'
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Selatius Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Tue Jul-11-06 11:33 PM
Response to Original message
3. That really depends
If you were to have elections run by an independent professional civil service, you are more likely to have accurate results than not, especially if it is all paper-ballot. International election monitors would boost trust.

We do not have the first in the US, and in the US it is up to individual state governments to decide if election monitors are allowed or banned.
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SensibleAmerican Donating Member (460 posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Tue Jul-11-06 11:58 PM
Response to Original message
4. You need evidence to prove fraud
That evidence existed in Iraq simply because of the fact that other people were not legally able to run. You can use sampling to prove fraud, however, a 1% error in the polling compared to the election results does not prove fraud and the methodology of the poll in question comes into account as well (i.e. exit polling has always had a Democratic bias, even back until 1980s. This does not prove electoral fraud at all.)

In essence, a unbiased scientific discovery is needed to prove fraud (or even disprove fraud, depending on where your burden of proof is).
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jsamuel Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Wed Jul-12-06 12:08 AM
Response to Reply #4
5. absolutely, but we need elections that allow for just that
an unbiased scientific review of each election
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