Thanks to starroute's post:
http://www.democraticunderground.com/discuss/duboard.php?az=show_mesg&forum=364&topic_id=2984140&mesg_id=2984835of this Rolling Stone article about Cheney:
http://www.rollingstone.com/politics/story/6450422/the_curse_of_dick_cheneyI read the following:
Since Cheney lived in Texas at the time, choosing him led Bush into a situation that, if the words of our Founding Fathers still have any meaning, is unconstitutional. The Constitution forbids a state's electors from voting for candidates for president and vice president who are both "an inhabitant of the same state as themselves." Yet by voting for Bush and Cheney, electors in Texas did precisely that. Cheney lived in Texas, had a Texas driver's license and filed his federal income tax using a Texas address. He had also voted in Texas, not in Wyoming, a state where he had not lived full-time for decades.I googled for more info and all I have come up with so far is from wikipedia's Vice Presidency entry:
The Constitution also prohibits electors from voting for both a Presidential and Vice Presidential candidate from the same state as themselves. In theory, this might deny a Vice Presidential candidate with the most electoral votes the absolute majority required to secure election, even if the Presidential candidate is elected, and place the Vice Presidential election in the hands of the Senate. In practice, this requirement is easily circumvented by having the candidate for Vice President change the state of residency as was done by Dick Cheney, who changed his legal residency from Texas to Wyoming, his original homestate, in order to run for election as Vice President alongside George W. Bush, who was then the governor of Texas.So did Cheney get his residency changed in time? Was it a legal maneuver? Or is his holding of that office unconstutional?