by Eric Boehlert
The Beltway press coverage of the still-unfolding U.S. Chamber of Commerce story continues to be quite timid and overly deferential toward the powerful, pro-business lobbying group. Legitimate questions have been raised about some of the money the Chamber has raised and whether it's being used as part of a massive $75 million attack campaign targeting Democrats this year. The question is, does some of the Chamber money come from overseas, and if so why is the Chamber using foreign dollars to influence U.S. campaigns?
As
noted yesterday, today's timidity stands in stark contrast to the Clinton `90's, when the press corps ran itself ragging, eagerly chasing similar allegations about overseas dollars being spent to influence stateside elections. Back then when the charges were lodged against Democrats, they were taken
extremely seriously. So, if that was the standard then, why are so many in the press basically playing the role of stenographers today and simply dictating the Chamber denials, and why aren't reporters doing original work to advance the Chamber story? (For now, that task has been
left solely to ThinkProgress.)
The nothing-to-see-here-folks message is impossible to miss in recent coverage.
From the WashPost (emphasis added):
The
GOP expenditures have come under
increasing criticism from Obama and other Democrats, who have focused on the big-spending Chamber of Commerce and the two Crossroads affiliates, which were formed with the encouragement of Republican political guru Karl Rove.
The attacks have included unsubstantiated allegations by the Democratic National Committee and others
that the chamber might be spending foreign donations on U.S. elections, an accusation the business lobby denies.
This is just weird. How can there be "unsubstantiated allegations" about something that
might happen? ThinkProgress has clearly suggested, based on its investigative work, that the Chamber might be using some foreign money to bankroll its massive anti-Democratic ad campaign this year. ThinkProgress has substantiated exactly how that
could be happening.
I understand why the Chamber would claim ThinkProgress' allegations were "unsubstantiated." (And no, that doesn't explain why the
Post would rush in and preemptively dismiss the pending allegations.) And I understand if ThinkProgress had made flat-out claims about the Chamber, but didn't have the evidence to support it, that the
Post would go ahead and described them as "unsubstantiated." But Think Progress has made well-supported, logical claims about what
might be happening, so how is the Post in any position to categorically claim the allegations are unsubstantiated?
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