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OK, so long story short, the guy I used to live catty-corner (kitty corner? Across the intersection, kinda) from a few years back lost his job and had a few other problems, moved away to get work and the bank foreclosed on his house. This was almost a year ago now, and I just heard from him this week -- he's actually doing well (almost 70, IIRC), he's got a steady gig this winter doing maintenance on lifts at an undisclosed ski area. :D
Anyhow, here's the part of his story that I find fascinating: he's in the clear, it appears. No deficiency in the foreclosure -- the bank called it square. He owed money, the bank said the house was worth what was owed, he's long since out of it, it went back on the market. It sold, too -- three times, which is the interesting part.
First, it went to the foreclosure auction, where his bank bought it for exactly what they said he owed them. Which is where he got off the hook.
Next, it went from the bank (I want to say this was BofA or Chase) to Freddy Mac (or Fannie Mae, I'm sorry I don't remember which is correct now that I'm re-telling the story). The transfer price? Again, the same number, exactly what was owed to the penny.
Then it hit the actual market, I guess. He said they dropped the price every month until it sold -- for $100K less. I looked it up online and it sold to a guy I know of, but don't know personally (it was a small town). The point is, it sold for probably the "real" value of the place, rather than the inflated value of just a few months earlier.
So what happened? Who was left holding the bag? I'm guessing Freddy/Fannie/whoever, not the bank, but I don't really understand this stuff. Mostly I'm just glad he's surfaced and is doing relatively well (and, frankly, has health insurance). Anyone have any idea what might've gone down?
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