SwampG8r
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Mon Nov-07-11 01:20 AM
Original message |
why does my state pay for the party primariy elections on either side? |
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are they not private members only elections? real question here i am curious as to why my state foots the bill for what is a private function i understand in the general as each party has a nominee my taxes underwrite the Dem and the GOP primaries yet i can vote in only one shouldnt it be the responsibility of each party to have a nominee in the general and foot their own bill until a name is decided?
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TheWraith
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Mon Nov-07-11 02:03 AM
Response to Original message |
1. Perhaps because they are, indeed, elections... |
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...and because no person is required to pay money to the political party they belong to. I can say for certainty, as a member of a Democratic committee for a very red county, we could not POSSIBLY have paid for a primary out of pocket. Period.
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TreasonousBastard
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Mon Nov-07-11 03:03 AM
Response to Reply #1 |
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the state is (often laughingly) presumed to be an uninterested party-- who else would you want running the elections?
Since voting is a basic right of all citizens, it's proper for the state to pay.
(Some states also have open primaries where you can vote for any party.)
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provis99
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Mon Nov-07-11 04:33 AM
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3. so you're opposed to publicly funded elections? |
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well, we can always maintain the current corporate funded elections, then.
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PoliticAverse
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Mon Nov-07-11 07:09 AM
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4. Generally such rules came about as part of 'progressive election reform'. n/t |
customerserviceguy
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Mon Nov-07-11 07:22 AM
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5. Because those two sides almost always win elections |
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The D's and the R's both like it that way. They figure they can deal with each other better without those messy third parties being involved. And they're right.
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Motown_Johnny
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Mon Nov-07-11 07:29 AM
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6. any voter can register to vote in a primary election |
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this hardly qualifies as "private members only"
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DU
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Sun May 12th 2024, 08:48 AM
Response to Original message |