Boojatta
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Mon Apr-11-11 09:36 PM
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Poll question: Did the Aztec Empire practice colonial exploitation? |
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Edited on Mon Apr-11-11 09:39 PM by Boojatta
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Taverner
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Mon Apr-11-11 09:47 PM
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1. Yes of course, because that's what "empires" do |
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Homogenize their surroundings. And their surroundings' surroundings. And their surroundings' surroundings' surroundings. Et cetra....
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Ken Burch
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Mon Apr-11-11 10:01 PM
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2. Did the Aztecs actually colonize anyone? |
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What's the point of this whole thread, anyway? Are you arguing that it's illegitimate to describe what Europeans did in the New World as colonialism or exploitation?
And why the Aztecs?
I don't think anybody here has ever called Montezuma a utopian saint.
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LoveIsNow
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Mon Apr-11-11 10:01 PM
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The Aztec Empire looked just like the British Empire in miniature: a little island controlling a huge spread of territory. The vast majority of the Aztec Empire was not inhabited by Aztecs, but by other tribes that they had bullied into sending them tribute. They really didn't even bother to colonize to any meaningful extent. That's one of the reasons why they fell so easily.
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Lost-in-FL
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Mon Apr-11-11 10:14 PM
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4. Is this a trivia question or an opinion? |
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I'm confused.
Now, what if they did? Would that make it ok for the Europeans to exploit them?
By today's standards it would be wrong to occupy any country and exploit both people and their resources.
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Boojatta
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Wed Apr-13-11 06:13 PM
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Wed Apr 24th 2024, 08:15 PM
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