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kentuck

(111,089 posts)
Thu Sep 26, 2013, 08:00 PM Sep 2013

1 Section 1(a), 31 USCA 463(a). [294 U.S. 330, 350] of the US Code

From Perry v. United States Feb. 18th, 1935 Decided by the US Supreme Court


1 Section 1(a), 31 USCA 463(a). [294 U.S. 330, 350] There is no question as to the power of the Congress to regulate the value of money: that is, to establish a monetary system and thus to determine the currency of the country. The question is whether the Congress can use that power so as to invalidate the terms of the obligations which the government has theretofore issued in the exercise of the power to borrow money on the credit of the United States. In attempted justification of the Joint Resolution in relation to the outstanding bonds of the United States, the government argues that 'earlier Congresses could not validly restrict the 73rd Congress from exercising its constitutional powers to regulate the value of money, borrow money, or regulate foreign and interstate commerce'; and, from this premise, the government seems to deduce the proposition that when, with adequate authority, the government borrows money and pledges the credit of the United States, it is free to ignore that pledge and alter the terms of its obligations in case a later Congress finds their fulfillment inconvenient. The government's contention thus raises a question of far greater importance than the particular claim of the plaintiff. On that reasoning, if the terms of the government's bond as to the standard of payment can be repudiated, it inevitably follows that the obligation as to the amount to be paid may also be repudiated. The contention necessarily imports that the Congress can disregard the obligations of the government at its discretion, and that, when the government borrows money, the credit of the United States is an illusory pledge.

We do not so read the Constitution. There is a clear distinction between the power of the Congress to control or interdict the contracts of private parties when they interfere with the exercise of its constitutional authority [294 U.S. 330, 351] and the power of the Congress to alter or repudiate the substance of its own engagements when it has borrowed money under the authority which the Constitution confers. In authorizing the Congress to borrow money, the Constitution empowers the Congress to fix the amount to be borrowed and the terms of payment. By virtue of the power to borrow money 'on the credit of the United States,' the Congress is authorized to pledge that credit as an assurance of payment as stipulated, as the highest assurance the government can give, its plighted faith. To say that the Congress may withdraw or ignore that pledge is to assume that the Constitution contemplates a vain promise; a pledge having no other sanction than the pleasure and convenience of the pledgor. This Court has given no sanction to such a conception of the obligations of our government.

edit for link: http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/cgi-bin/getcase.pl?court=us&vol=294&invol=330

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1 Section 1(a), 31 USCA 463(a). [294 U.S. 330, 350] of the US Code (Original Post) kentuck Sep 2013 OP
Kick one time.. kentuck Sep 2013 #1
Kick. truebluegreen Sep 2013 #2
Or more specifically... kentuck Sep 2013 #3
 

truebluegreen

(9,033 posts)
2. Kick.
Thu Sep 26, 2013, 10:51 PM
Sep 2013

It is a dilemma: should the government break the law by not spending the money and paying the bills authorized by Congress, or should they break it by exceeding the debt limit?

But put that way I'm sure, whichever one gets picked, the Republicans will seize the opportunity to call it an impeachable offense.

kentuck

(111,089 posts)
3. Or more specifically...
Thu Sep 26, 2013, 10:55 PM
Sep 2013

Should the Congress not hold up the obligations of our government per the laws in the US Code?

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